USSR deliberately stole farmers food as result of which millions starved.
Mind sharing evidence? The USSR tried to collectivize the bourgeois farms run by the Kulaks, yes, they didn’t try to starve anyone intentionally.
People who don’t okay ball were executed on the spot. Peasants were not permitted to leave their towns, people who attempted were executed.
Moscow was petitioned to stop and they refused.
People can make their own conclusions.
There was resistance from the Bourgeoisie, yes. The Kulaks resisted, often violently, in the middle of drought, flood, and pestilent famine.
All the other bullshit you are spinning is trying to undermine these facts which are suppoted by historical records.
I did not once undermine this. I, in fact, directed you to a wikipedia article affirming what I had said. Are you calling Wikipedia genocide deniers too?
USSR even got a NYT regime removed to tell American public nobody is starving because it was getting a bit awkward on global stage due to the reports coming out from Ukraine.
Mind sharing a source? Western media tended to share the German narrative, the aforementioned origin of the “genocide” stance on the famine coming from the Nazi press was repeated in Britain and other western countries.
Interesting, didn’t know about that. Didn’t say anything about the USSR forcing it on him, though, nor did it seem to outweigh the west’s spread of the Nazis take on the famine.
Circling back, my stance is
In the early 1930s, the USSR tried to collectivize agriculture from the bourgeois Kulaks, who were not at all an ethnic group
At the same time, there was drought, flooding, and pests which lowered harvest yields
The Kulaks resisted collectivization, burning their crops and killing their livestock rather than handing it over to the Communists
The Red Army retailiated violently against these Kulaks
The Nazi Press spread stories about it being an intentional famine amounting to targeted genocide, rather than a humanitarian tragedy
The West tended to favor the Nazi’s story
Outside of WWII, this was the last major famine in the USSR, as collectivization ultimately allowed for industrialized farming. Even if the collectivization process was botched and should have happened after industrialized private farming was mastered, it ultimately ended famines after the tragic famine.
Which of these 7 points do you disagree with? All are supported by the Holodomor Wikipedia Article, so if you do disagree you can help edit the article on Wikipedia if you have evidence.
Mind sharing evidence? The USSR tried to collectivize the bourgeois farms run by the Kulaks, yes, they didn’t try to starve anyone intentionally.
There was resistance from the Bourgeoisie, yes. The Kulaks resisted, often violently, in the middle of drought, flood, and pestilent famine.
I did not once undermine this. I, in fact, directed you to a wikipedia article affirming what I had said. Are you calling Wikipedia genocide deniers too?
Mind sharing a source? Western media tended to share the German narrative, the aforementioned origin of the “genocide” stance on the famine coming from the Nazi press was repeated in Britain and other western countries.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Walter_Duranty
Interesting, didn’t know about that. Didn’t say anything about the USSR forcing it on him, though, nor did it seem to outweigh the west’s spread of the Nazis take on the famine.
Circling back, my stance is
In the early 1930s, the USSR tried to collectivize agriculture from the bourgeois Kulaks, who were not at all an ethnic group
At the same time, there was drought, flooding, and pests which lowered harvest yields
The Kulaks resisted collectivization, burning their crops and killing their livestock rather than handing it over to the Communists
The Red Army retailiated violently against these Kulaks
The Nazi Press spread stories about it being an intentional famine amounting to targeted genocide, rather than a humanitarian tragedy
The West tended to favor the Nazi’s story
Outside of WWII, this was the last major famine in the USSR, as collectivization ultimately allowed for industrialized farming. Even if the collectivization process was botched and should have happened after industrialized private farming was mastered, it ultimately ended famines after the tragic famine.
Which of these 7 points do you disagree with? All are supported by the Holodomor Wikipedia Article, so if you do disagree you can help edit the article on Wikipedia if you have evidence.