Certain products in the West remain cheap, since they can draw on “price efficient” labour in the “developing world”.
Now, does this labour cost differential pose a problem for global equality? I.e. you might have enough money to get around your local developing capitol, but you won’t be able to move to New York.
Does your rich country now have an incentive to keep low wages in the developing world?
Would workers in the rich country expect any benefits of this situation?
Would workers in the poor country have realistic chances to move up the ladder?
Is there a tension between global and national equality?
OK, I’ll try and help.
Certain products in the West remain cheap, since they can draw on “price efficient” labour in the “developing world”.
Now, does this labour cost differential pose a problem for global equality? I.e. you might have enough money to get around your local developing capitol, but you won’t be able to move to New York.
Does your rich country now have an incentive to keep low wages in the developing world?
Would workers in the rich country expect any benefits of this situation?
Would workers in the poor country have realistic chances to move up the ladder?
Is there a tension between global and national equality?