• Cowbee [he/him]
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    4
    ·
    6 months ago

    Yes, via violent domestic and hyper-violent international exploitation.

    Read the linked text.

    • andyburke@fedia.io
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      1
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      6 months ago

      Like I said, it wasn’t moral. It is still a result of capitalism. Think we’ve probably finished here because you’re not my teacher and you don’t assign me reading.

      • Cowbee [he/him]
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        3
        arrow-down
        1
        ·
        6 months ago

        It was not, it was a result of industrialization, followed by Imperialism.

        Suit yourself though.

        • andyburke@fedia.io
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          1
          arrow-down
          1
          ·
          6 months ago

          Colonial imperialism began with industrialization in your explanation? Capitalist countries were colonizing the world well before the industrial revolution.

          • Cowbee [he/him]
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            2
            ·
            6 months ago

            Colonialism is not the same as what I am referring to as Imperialism. I specifically mean the point at which Capitalism reaches outward and exports Capital to less developed countries to super-exploit for super-profits.