Pretty much asking general questions about the “Holodomor.” Was it a deliberate genocide? What factors contributed to the famine? Why is it seem as a deliberate genocide today?
Please provide sources to every claim you make. Cheers.
Pretty much asking general questions about the “Holodomor.” Was it a deliberate genocide? What factors contributed to the famine? Why is it seem as a deliberate genocide today?
Please provide sources to every claim you make. Cheers.
comrade, do you have a source for this? it was my understanding that the term was not used until decades later (1980s), promoted by nazi-sympathiser emigrants.
Hmm Wikipedia says “The word was used in print in the 1930s in Ukrainian diaspora publications in Czechoslovakia as Haladamor” but it links to a book that I can’t access.
Otherwise it seems you’re right, the word started being used in the 80s.