• cucumber_sandwich@lemmy.world
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    1 year ago

    It absolutely does imo, it legitimises itself through an appeal to an underlying moral framework.

    Yes, but very indirectly. We don’t have a “moral police”, but one that enforces laws which are, as you say, legitimized by the people as a sovereign.

    So you don’t see police stopping people on “moral grounds” in some vague interpretation.

      • cucumber_sandwich@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        Usually codified by lawy not prosecuted as “immoral behaviour” as such. Although if you look at recent anti-abortion legislation in the US it is intentionally vague. That shifts some burden of interpretation to the executive branch and is a sign of authoritarianism I’d say.