Who cares who it was “truly” written and who cares if the word “homosexuality” isn’t literally in the Bible? The King James Bible, which was written in 1622, is the most commonly-used English language Bible and it’s unapologetically anti-gay (ironic, since James himself was gay).
And I call bullshit on the Leviticus part. Firstly because putting the young boy to death as well makes no sense and secondly because I would find it hard to believe that ancient Jews who had over 600 laws about what you shouldn’t be doing were just fine with the gay stuff.
The King James Bible, which was written in 1622, is the most commonly-used English language Bible and it’s unapologetically anti-gay (ironic, since James himself was gay)
It was also a translation of the original Hebrew, which we’re learning in recent years was full of errors.
putting the young boy to death as well makes no sense
Where…does it imply that in the text?
I would find it hard to believe that ancient Jews who had over 600 laws about what you shouldn’t be doing were just fine with the gay stuff.
It’s absolutely possible, even if not necessarily true. Multiple historical accounts imply much of the anti-gay stuff was falsified or only in specific communities.
Leviticus 20:13 - If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.
So, again, if it’s a man raping a child, why kill the child?
Ancient greeks in shambles.
Who cares who it was “truly” written and who cares if the word “homosexuality” isn’t literally in the Bible? The King James Bible, which was written in 1622, is the most commonly-used English language Bible and it’s unapologetically anti-gay (ironic, since James himself was gay).
And I call bullshit on the Leviticus part. Firstly because putting the young boy to death as well makes no sense and secondly because I would find it hard to believe that ancient Jews who had over 600 laws about what you shouldn’t be doing were just fine with the gay stuff.
It was also a translation of the original Hebrew, which we’re learning in recent years was full of errors.
Where…does it imply that in the text?
It’s absolutely possible, even if not necessarily true. Multiple historical accounts imply much of the anti-gay stuff was falsified or only in specific communities.
Leviticus 20:13 - If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.
So, again, if it’s a man raping a child, why kill the child?
Hm, alright. This is actually reasonable, but while it’s not confirmed without a doubt, this verse has also been found in recent studies to be likely about pedophilia and not homosexuality - and in fact might’ve been to protect homosexuals.
And as stated, it may very well have varied wildly between communities.