Yes it is if you understand that “phonetic” is derived from the Phoenician civilization/culture, and that phenoms and phenology naturally derives the ph- sound from the “ph” not the letter “f” just because the Romans were lazy.
Blame your lack of education, not the Phoenicians!
Edit: I apologize— I didn’t intend for this to come so removed. I was trying to be sassy and playful, and went overboard. ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Yes it is if you understand that “phonetic” is derived from the Phoenician civilization/culture, and that phenoms and phenology naturally derives the ph- sound from the “ph” not the letter “f” just because the Romans were lazy.
Blame your lack of education, not the Phoenicians!
Edit: I apologize— I didn’t intend for this to come so removed. I was trying to be sassy and playful, and went overboard. ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Linguistics and not-removed… What are you trying to be, a descriptivist!!!
Uh oh, it sounds like you’re
Someone knows history
Phexactly