Say we have all the empirical evidence from 19th-century science prior to the observation of the wavelike diffraction of matter particles, plus 21st-century math and theory to construct an alternative explanation.
Say we have all the empirical evidence from 19th-century science prior to the observation of the wavelike diffraction of matter particles, plus 21st-century math and theory to construct an alternative explanation.
Why would it need to quiver?
To explain any macroscopic effects that necessarily depend on matter waves. If there are any. Which is my question.
Superconductors and Bose-Einstein condensates are both macroscopic phenomena that result from coherent matter waves.
Maybe there aren’t any in our conceptual universe.
To contain the arrows of time and entropy, obviously.