• Bernie Ecclestoned@sh.itjust.works
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    2 years ago

    On 4 March the Russian president Vladimir Putin replied to a question on the violation of the Budapest Memorandum, describing the current Ukrainian situation as a revolution: “a new state arises, but with this state and in respect to this state, we have not signed any obligatory documents”.[32] Russia stated that it had never been under obligation to “force any part of Ukraine’s civilian population to stay in Ukraine against its will”. Russia suggested that the US was in violation of the Budapest Memorandum and described the Euromaidan as a US-instigated coup.

    That’s your level of proof, because Putin said so?

    • gun
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      2 years ago

      You’re putting words in my mouth now, you should read your own source instead.

      It says: [The Budapest Memorandum]

      prohibited the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom and the United States from threatening or using military force or economic coercion against Ukraine, Belarus, and Kazakhstan, “except in self-defence or otherwise in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations.”

      Note economic coercion against Belarus. That’s exactly what the United States did in 2013, objectively violating the agreement. Where does the US get the right to denounce Russia for violating the same agreement they did a decade ago?