Firstly, do yous agree that this is true?

I find it a very general rule, in Europe anyway, the poorer the area the better the food.

And if so, why?

My theory is that it relates to industrialisation. Developed countries, they are developed because their cultures are focused on efficiency. They are endlessly searching for ways to do things more cheaply.

So you find farms, distributers, shops and restaurants, all trying to minimise their costs quite aggressively. They are not interested in quality. They have no pride in their work.

Poor countries are poor because the focus too much on quality and not enough on finding the cheapest possible way to do things.

Does this explanation extend to other cultural elements apart from food?

  • roastpotatothiefOPM
    2·
    3 years ago

    Good answer.

    Also good point, regions where food is dominated by large scale businesses or chains (can be farms, distributers, shops or restaurants) they do tend to be the worst, just because of the economics driving big companies is different. Maybe that’s the crucial factor.

    Maybe it’s correct to treat the whole thing as a simple economics issue. How big are the barriers of entry into the market for a new competitor? Then the answer flows from that. There could be a correlation between poverty and having looser food-industy regulation, and therefore having more competition and finally better quality food. That explanation would answer your two questions too.