S=sum of (-1)^n/n from 1 to infty

For why I named the post as so, here’s why

spoiler

  • quilan@lemmy.world
    2·
    8 months ago

    There closest I was able to do on the fly was to show that the ::: pairwise sum has an integral of -ln(2)/2 ::: but that was pretty hand wavy. I’ll have to check how it’s actually done.