In the U.S., laws that disadvantage specific entities are generally considered to not be following the “equal protection” part of the (amended) constitution.
Countries without (their own) laws prohibiting it can (and do) prohibit specific services.
Member states of the WTO (like the U.S.) have agreed to allow themselves to be sued for lost profits based on any (new) laws they pass.
But, I’m no expert – this is just the view from my (potentially misinformed) corner of the world.
Why can’t a country choose which services it wants to prohibit? Seems strange, it isn’t an American company.
I don’t really care, just wondering.
In the U.S., laws that disadvantage specific entities are generally considered to not be following the “equal protection” part of the (amended) constitution.
Countries without (their own) laws prohibiting it can (and do) prohibit specific services.
Member states of the WTO (like the U.S.) have agreed to allow themselves to be sued for lost profits based on any (new) laws they pass.
But, I’m no expert – this is just the view from my (potentially misinformed) corner of the world.
i don’t want foreign companies meddling with my country either, but here we are