glibg10b to Technology@lemmy.worldEnglish · 8 months agoThis was the first result on Googleimagemessage-square203fedilinkarrow-up1816arrow-down134
arrow-up1782arrow-down1imageThis was the first result on Googleglibg10b to Technology@lemmy.worldEnglish · 8 months agomessage-square203fedilink
minus-squaredrathvedro@lemm.eelinkfedilinkEnglisharrow-up1·8 months agoIt would be. By ohm’s law, I=V/R and R=V/I, so if V is fixed as V=1, then I=1/R, R=1/I, so it’s is effectively the same thing, just measured in reverse.
It would be. By ohm’s law, I=V/R and R=V/I, so if V is fixed as V=1, then I=1/R, R=1/I, so it’s is effectively the same thing, just measured in reverse.