A directive on violence against women is currently being drafted to define rape in terms of the absence of consent, the aim being to harmonize European legislation. Several member states, including France, refuse to do so.
In France, rape is defined as a sexual act committed under threat, duress, surprise or violence.
Well… yeah? Seems perfectly logical to me. Those can be proven in a court, how do you prove that you did not consent in cases that are not listed above?
Edit: The legifrance article about rape, which the official, state provided explanations and listing of French law, states the above definition, followed by an important addition:
Rape occurs when an act of sexual penetration or an oral-genital act is committed on a person, with violence, coercion, threat or surprise, that is without his consent.
I’m pretty sure the opposition to a redefinition of “rape” is due to provability of the crime, and not a denial of the importance of consent
Well… yeah? Seems perfectly logical to me. Those can be proven in a court, how do you prove that you did not consent in cases that are not listed above?
Edit: The legifrance article about rape, which the official, state provided explanations and listing of French law, states the above definition, followed by an important addition:
I’m pretty sure the opposition to a redefinition of “rape” is due to provability of the crime, and not a denial of the importance of consent
Edit2: source